1. Max Joseph Spaces are seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Psoriasis
c)P.Foliaceous
d)P vulgaris““
2. Basal cell degeneration or liquefactive degeration is most characteristic feature of
a) P. Vulgaris
b)Lichen Planus
c)Scleroderma
d)Psoriasis
3. what are Max Joseph spaces?
a) Hypertrophied basal cell
b)gap in DEJ
c) Inclusion bodies inside basal cell
d) Apoptosis of basal cell
4) Civvate bodies or colloid bodies are seen in
a) P. Vulgaris
b)Lichen Planus
c)Scleroderma
d)Psoriasis
5.Which is not a cause of interface dermatitis
a) Fixed drug erruption
b) Erythema multiforme
c) Graft vs Host disease
d) Psoriasis
6.Which is NOT aetiology of Melasma
a)Sun exposure
b)genetic tendency
c)alcohol
d)Hormonal imbalace
7) Gold standard treatment of Melasma
a) Topical steroid
b) Topical Glycolic acid
c) Topical hydraquinone
d)topical kojoic acid
8) Which of the following is not a part of Kligman regimen
a)Topical tretinoin
b)Topical hydraquinone
c) Topical steroid
d) Sunscreen
9. Which of the following is one of the major difference between SLE and Rosacea rashes
a) SLE rash spares the nasolabial fold while Rosacea don’t
b) Rosacea spares the nasolabial fold while SLE don’t
c)SLE don’t have photosensitivity while Rosacea have
d) Rosacea have photosensitivity while SLE don’t
10. Which of the follow is a trigger for Rosacea
a) Sun and alcohol
b) Hot spicy food
c) Emotional upset
d) ALL
11. Which of the following is C/I in Rosacea
a) Oral Doxy
b) Oral Azithromycin
c) Topical sterois
d) Metronidazole
12. MC cause of Acanthosis Nigricans
a) Obesity
b) DM
c) PCOD
d) Gastric adeno carcinoma
13. Insulin resistance is seen in
a) Acanthosis Nigricans
b) Psoriasis
c) Sleroderma
d) Congenital Melanocytic nevus
14. Papillomatosis is seen in
a) Psoriosis
b) P foliaceous
c) Acanthosis Nigriccans
d) Lichen planus
15. Which is NOT true about epidermal blisters
a) Flaccid
b) Doesn’t rupture by itself
c) Doesn’t heal with scarring
d) Heals with hyperpigmentation
16. Which is true about dermal blisters
a) Tense
b) Flaccid
c) Doesn’t heal by scarring
d)heals with hyperpigmentation
17. Slivery scaling is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityriasis versicolor
c) Pityriasis Rosea
d) P foliaceous
18. Powdery scaling is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityriasis versicolor
c) Pityriasis Rosea
d) P foliaceous
19. Collarette Scaling is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityriasis versicolor
c) Pityriasis Rosea
d) P foliaceous
20. Leaf like scaling is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityriasis versicolor
c) Pityriasis Rosea
d) P foliaceous
21. Honey coloured crust deen in
a) Non bullous impetigo
b)Toxic epidermal necrolysis
c) P foliaceous
d) none
22. Hemorrhagic crust seen in
a) Non bullous impetigo
b)Toxic epidermal necrolysis
c) P foliaceous
d) none
23. Triad of lichenification are all except
a) Thickening
b) Increased skin marking
c) hyperpigmentation
d) Crust
24. Glaborous skin is seen in
a) Palms
b) Soles
c) lip
d) all
25. What is characteristic of female pattern baldness
a) Hair line recession
b) No hair line recession
c) widening of central margin
d) both b & c
26. Main defect in Albinism
a) Tyrisinase deficiency
b) Neural crest dysfunction
c) Melanocyte reduced
d) Vessel disorder
27. White forelock characteristically seen in
a) Piabaldism
b) Albinism
c) Nevus depigmentosus
d) Nevus anemicus
28. Main defect in Piabaldism
a) Tyrisinase deficiency
b) Neural crest dysfunction
c) Melanocyte reduced
d) Vessel disorder
29.Main defect in Nevus depigmentosus is
a) Tyrisinase deficiency
b) Neural crest dysfunction
c) Melanocyte reduced
d) Vessel disorder
30. Main defect in Nevus anemicus is
a) Tyrisinase deficiency
b) Neural crest dysfunction
c) Melanocyte reduced
d) Vessel disorder
31. Which of the following melanin disorder is acquired
a)Vitiligo
b) Albinism
c) Piabaldism
d) Nevus depigmentosus
32. In which of the following melanin disorder melanocytes are present but empty
a) Albinism
b) Vitiligo
c) Piabaldism
d) Nevus depigmentosus
33. Congenital diffuse white patch seen in
a) Albinism
b) Vitiligo
c) Piabaldism
d) Nevus depigmentosus
34. A child presents with localised white patch since birth ,on study it is found that melanin transfer to keratinicyte reduced . Which of the follwing condition is true
a) a) Albinism
b) Vitiligo
c) Piabaldism
d) Nevus depigmentosus
35. Which is NOT a poor prognosis factor for vitiligo
a) white skin black hair
b) white skin white hair
c)Leucotrichia
d)Thyroid disease
36. MC vitiligo is
a) Vitiligo vulgaris
b) Acrofacial
c) Vitilio universalis
d) Lip tip
37.Treatment of choice in Vitiligo
a)Phototherapy
b)Topical steroid
c)Skin grafting
d)Calcipotriol
38.MC association of vitiligo
a) Congenital heart disease
b) Urogenital disorder
c) Thyroid disease
d) Lens problem
39.Most common agent for contact leucoderma
a)para tertiary butyl phenol
b)monobenzyl ether of hydroquinone
c)Banzenbe
d)vegetables
40.Blue sclera is characteristic of
a) Nevus of Ota
b) Nevus of Ito
c) Congenital melanocytic nevus
d) both a & b
41. Treatment of choice for Nevus of Ota /Ito
a) Switched Nd: yag laser
b) Topical sterod
c) PUVA
d) Chemical peel
42.Whcih of the following is NOT a nevus
a) Nevus of Ota
b) Mongolian spot
c) Becker’s nevus
d) none
43.Which of the following is epidermal melanocytic nevus
a) Nevus of Ota
b) Mongolian spot
c) Becker’s nevus
d) none
44.Which of the following are characteristic of malignant melanoma (PGI)
a) Asymmetry
b) Border irregular
c) Colour multiple
d) Diameter>6 mm
e) Evolution
f) ALL
45.Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for melanoma
a) Giant congenital nevus
b) Immunosuppression
c)Dark skin
d) Xeroderma pigmentosum
46.Which melanoma has best prognosis
a) Lentgo maligna
b) Lentigo maligna melanoma
c)Superficial spreading
d)Nodular melanoma
47.MC melanoma in India
a) Lentgo maligna
b) Lentigo maligna melanoma
c)Superficial spreading
d)Nodular melanoma
48.Which is the MC site of metastasis for melanoma
a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Brain
d)Bone
49.What is Gold Standard for Melanoma
a) Skin biopsy
b) Markers
c) USG
d) karyotype
50.Which is NOT a marker for melanoma
a) S100
b)HMB45
c)MelanA/MART 1
d) KART 23
51.Which method is more preferred in taking skin biopsy in Melanoma
a) Breslow method
b) Clarke method
c) Hensle’s method
d) Both a & b
52. Breslow method : Deapth of melanoma cell counted from the
a) granular layer
b) SC
c) basal layer
d) SL
53. What should be the surgical margin for a Breslow deapth of 1-2 mm
a) 1 cm
b) 1-2 cm
c) 3mm
d) >2 cm
54.Dermographism is seen in
a) urticaria
b) psoriasis
c) melanoma
d) Eczema
55.Urticaria is a disorder of
a) Melanocyte
b) activated langerhans cell
c) Apoptotic basal cell
d) Fragile mast cell
56.Acquagenic pruritis is seen in
a)polycythemia vera
b)urticaria
c) P.Foliaceous
d)Psoriasis
57.What is the DOC for Angioedema
a)Inj Hydrocortisone
b) Inj Adrenaline
c) Inj Avil
d) Inj Atropine
58. Hereditaruy angioedema is
a) AD
b) AR
c) Codominance
d) Mixed
59. Which is NOT true in lab findings in a case of hereditary angioedema
a) Low C3
b) Low C5
c) Low C2, C1
d) none
60.What is the pathology of Hereditary Angiedema
a) Deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor
b) Pathology of fragile mast cell
c) Increased permeability of cell membrane
d) Complement activation
61.Decreased amount of the concerned enzyme is seen in
a) Type 1 Hereditary angioedema
b) Type 2 Hereditary angioedema
c) Type 3
d) Type 4
62. Inactive enzyme( C1 esterase inhibitor ) seen in
a) Type 1 Hereditary angioedema
b) Type 2 Hereditary angioedema
c) Type 3
d) Type 4
63. A child presents with multiple brown hyperpigmented patch on the trunk .Sratching on these brown patch causes urticaria like lesion . Possible diagnosis
a) Mastocytosis
b)Pityriasis rosea
c) Reiter’s disease
d) Erythema multiforme
64.Darier’s sign is seen in
a) Mastocytosis
b) Histiocytosis
c)Xanthogranuloma
d) ALL
65.Herald Patch is seen in
a) Tinea
b) Pityriasis Rosea
c)Reiter’s disease
d)Sporotrichosis
66.Multiple ring like circinate lesion seen in
a) Tinea
b) Pityriasis Rosea
c)Reiter’s disease
d)Sporotrichosis
67.Fish tank granuloma or swimming pool granuloma is caused by
a)Mycobacterium marinum
b)sporothrix schenkii
c)M. Kansassi
d)M.Scrofulacium
68.Which of the following is a cause of true Koebner phenomena
a) Psoriasis
b)Lichen planus
c) Vitiligo
d)ALL
69.Which of the following is a cause of Reverse Koebner phenomena
a) Psoriasis
b)Lichen planus
c) Vitiligo
d)ALL
70. .Which of the following is a cause of False Koebner phenomena
a) Wart ( Verruca Vulgaris)
b)Psoriasis
c)Lichen planus
d)Hailey hailey
71.Remote reverse Koebner is seen in
a) Vitiligo
b)Granuloma annulare
c)Both
d) Wart
72. Target lesion is seen in
a) Erythema multiforme
b)Vitiligo
c) Granuloma annulare ]
d) all
73.Woods Lamp has W.L of
a) 365 nm
b)456nm
c)300nm
d)200nm
74.Colour of wood’s lamp in a case of erythrasma
a) Green
b) coral red
c) Pink
d) white
75.What is the cause of Bluish green fluorescence in Tinea capitis
a) Pteridine secreted by the fungus
b) Propionic acid secreted by the fungus
c) porphyrin
d)Coproporphyrin
76. What is the cause of Coral red fluorescence In Erythresma
a) Pteridine
b) Propionic acid
c) porphyrin
d)Coproporphyrin
77.What is the cause of yellow fluorescence in Pittyriasis versicolor
a) Pteridine
b) Propionic acid
c) porphyrin
d)Coproporphyrin
78. Earliest and Mc sign of tuberous Sclerosis
a) Ash-leaf macules
b)Confetti macules
c)Adenoma sebaceum
d) Shagreen patch
79. Adenoma sebaceum on HPE
a) Angifibroma
b)Collagenoma
c) hypertrophied sebaceous gland
d) Metaplasia of adensq tissue
80. Periungual fibroma is seen in
a) Adenoma sebaceum
b)Tuberous Sclerosis
c)Psoriasis
d) Lichen planus
81.Austitz sign is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b)Lichen planus
c) Urticaria
d) Vitiligo
82. Grattage test is used to demonstrate
a) auspitz sign
b)Koebaner phenomena
c) Muron’s sign
d) Lilybit’s sign
83.Spongiform pustules of Kogoj seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) Lichen planus
c) Urticaris
d) P vulgaris
84.Pappilary tip microabscess seen in
a) Dermatitis herpetiformis
b) Cutaneous T cell lymphoma
c)TEN
d) P vulgaris
85.Malignant lymphocytes invades dermo epidermal junction – form group of lymphocytes in epidermis . This is known as
a) Invasion
b) metastasis
c) epidermotrophism
d) Taxis
86.Sezary cells with cerebriform nucleus is seen in
a)Mycosis fungoides
b)Melanoma
c)BCC
d) Sq cell carcinoma of skin
87.Which is not included in the triad of Sezary syndrome
a)Sezary cells in blood
b)Bullous lesion
c)generalised lymphadenopathy
d)Erythroderma
88.Epidermolytic hyperkeratosis is seen in
a) Bullous icthyosiform erythroderma
b)Cicatricial pemphigoid
c) TEN
d) Linear IgA disease
89.Toxic epidermal necrolysis is due to
a)Destruction of basal keratinocyte
b)Antibody to BP2
c)Antibody to Laminin
d)Hemidesmosomes get cut
90.Which among the following form roof blisters
a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Epidermolysis bullosa acuisita
c)Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
d) ALL
91.Antibody to BP1 antigent in dermoepidermal junction is seen in
a)Bullous pemphigoid
b)Linear IgA disease
c)Cicatricial pemphigoid
d)TEN
92. On Direct immunofluorescence(DIF) of dermoepidermal junction
IgG and C3 is found in suprabasal fishnet , intercellular pattern . Diagnosis is
a)Pemphigous Foliaceous
b) P vulgaris
c)Bullous pemphigoid
d)Cicatricial pemphigoid
93. On DIF of dermoepidermal junction , IgG & C3 found in subcorneal fishnet pattern . Dx is
a)Pemphigous Foliaceous
b) P vulgaris
c)Bullous pemphigoid
d)Cicatricial pemphigoid
94.On DIF of dermoepidermal junction , IgG & C3 found in a linear patten .Dx is
a)Pemphigous Foliaceous
b) P vulgaris
c)Bullous pemphigoid
d) Linear IgA disease
95.Growing hair is known as
a)Catagen
b)Anagen
c)Telogen
d) ALL
96.Resting hair is known as
a)Catagen
b)Anagen
c)Telogen
d) ALL
97.Abnormal for Telogen hair loss
a)>100 per day
b)>200 per day
c) >1 per day
d)<100 per daay
98. Abnormal for Anagen hair loss
a)>100 per day
b)>200 per day
c) >1 per day
d)<50 per day
99.Acute telogen effluvium is seen in all except
a) Severe fever
b)Major surgery
c)Labour
d) anemia
100.Chronic telogen effluvium is seen in
a) Severe fever
b)Major surgery
c)Labour
d) anemia
100.Blaschko’s line are important for which of the following disease
a) Incontinenta pigmenti
b)Linear verrucous epidermal nevus
c)Neurofibromatosis
d) Both A & B
101.Button hole sign is seen in
a)Neurofibromatosis
b)Incontinenta pigmenti
c)Linear verrucous epidermal nevus
d)Tuberous sclerosis
102.Axillary frackles are characteristic of
a)Neurofibromatosis
b)Incontinenta pigmenti
c)Linear verrucous epidermal nevus
d)Tuberous sclerosis
103.Carpet toe scale alopecia seen in
a)DLE
b)SLE
c) Neurofibromatosis
d) ALL
104. Only cicatricial alopecia seen in
a) DLE
b) SLE
c) both
d) None
105.CREST syndrome is seen in
a)Linear morphea
b)Scleroderma
c)Dermatomyocytis
d)Psoriasis
106.Linear morphea MC in which part of body
a) lower limb
b) upper limb
c) head and neck
d) chest
107.Digital pitted scar is seen in
a)Linear morphea
b)Systemic sclerosis
c)Dermatomyocytis
d)Psoriasis
108.Esophageal dysphagia and sclerodactyly is seen in
a)Linear morphea
b)Systemic sclerosis
c)Dermatomyocytis
d)CREST syndrome
109. Microstomia is seen in
a)Linear morphea
b)Systemic sclerosis
c)Dermatomyocytis
d)CREST syndrome
110.Heliotrope rash , Shawl sign is seen in
a)Linear morphea
b)Systemic sclerosis
c)Dermatomyocytis
d)bullous pemphigoid
111.Which of the following signifies better prognosis in juvenile dermatomyositis
a)Calcinosis cutis
b)Heliotrope rash
c) Mechanics hand
d) Involvement of LL
112.Irregular nail pitting is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) alopecia
c)eczema
d)lichen planus
113.Regular nail pitting is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) alopecia
c)eczema
d)lichen planus
114.Large deep nail pitting is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) alopecia
c)eczema
d)lichen planus
115. Dorsal pterygium is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) alopecia
c)eczema
d)lichen planus
116.Which one of the following is a important nail S/E of tetracycline group of drug
a)Photoonycholysis
b)half a half nail
c)Terry’s nail
d)Atrophy of nail
117.Half a half nail is seen in
a) CRF
b) ARF
c) Gastric adeno carcinoma
d) CCf
118.Terry’s nail is seen in
a) CRF
b) ARF
c) Gastric adeno carcinoma
d) CCF
119.Sand papper nail is seen in
a)Alopecia aereata
b)psoriasis
c)Lichen planus
d) ALL
120.Beau’s line is seen in
a)past stressfull event in the body
b) occupational exposure to toxin
c) Arsenic poisoning
d) Malaria
121.Mees line on nail is seen in
a)past stressfull event in the body
b) occupational exposure to toxin
c) Arsenic poisoning
d) Malaria
122.DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis
a) Dapsone
b)steroid
c) chloroquine
d)Antibiotics
!23. DOC for Bechet’s syndrome
a) Dapsone
b)steroid
c) chloroquine
d)Antibiotics
124. DOC for Sweets syndrome
a) Dapsone
b)steroid
c) chloroquine
d)Antibiotics
125. DOC for pyoderma gangreosum
a) Dapsone
b)steroid
c) chloroquine
d)Antibiotics
126.Pathergy test positive seen in
a)Bechet’s disease
b)Pyoderma gangreosum
c)RA
d) ALL
127. MC systemic association of pyoderma gangreosum
a)IBD
b)Hematological malignancy
c)Gastic adeocarcinoma
d)RA
128. MC association of pyoderma gangreosum
a)UC
b)Hematological malignancy
c)Gastic adeocarcinoma
d)Crohn’s disease
129.Which organism is the MC cause of Sweets Syndrome
a) Streptococcus
b) Staphylococcus
c) E coli
d) Pseudomonas
130.Which of the following is NOT a minor criteria to diagnose aphthous ulcer
a)Recurrent genital aphthous ulcer
b) Eye lesion
c) Recurrent oral aphthous ulcer
d) positive pathergy test
131.Which of the follwing is endogenous TB
a)TB chancre
b)TB verrucosa cutis
c)Scrofuloderma
d)none
132.What is Anatomist wart
a) TB verrucosa cutis
b) Lupus vulgaris
c)Cutaneus leishmaniasis
d)Leprosy
133.Healing with central clearing seen in
a) Tinea
b)Lupus vulgaris
c)Leishmaniasis
d) None
134.Healing with central scarring
a)Lupus valgaris
b) Tinea
c) Leishmaniasis
d)TB chancre
135.Healing with central crusting is seen in
a)Lupus valgaris
b) Tinea
c) Leishmaniasis
d)TB chancre
136.On Diascopy Apple jelly nodules are seen in
a)Lupus valgaris
b) Tinea
c) Leishmaniasis
d)TB chancre
137.Which of the following cutaneous TB is a indication of immunosuppresion
a)Scrofuloderma
b)TB chancre
c)Nodular tuberculoid
d)Erythema nodosum
138.What is erythema nodosum
a)Septal paniculitis
b)Lobular paniculitis
c)internal TB
d) both a & b
139.MC cause of Erythema nodosum
a) Idiopathic
b)Streptococcus
c)IBD
d)Bachet’s disease
140.MC infection causing Erythema nodosum
a) Staph
b) Streptococcus
c) pseudomonas
d)E coli
141.Vasculitis is NOT seen in
a) Erythema nodosum
b) Erythema Nodosum Laprosum
c)Sweets syndrome
d) None
142.Lobular panniculitis with necrosis is seen in
a) pancreatic panniculitis
b) post steroid panniculitis
c)Erythema nodosum
d) None
143.Lobular panniculitis with needle shapes cleft in fat is seen in
a) pancreatic panniculitis
b) post steroid panniculitis
c)Erythema nodosum
d) None
144.MC peripheral Nerve involved in Hansen’s disease
a) Facial N
b)Radial Nerve
c)Ulnar nerve
d)posterior tibial nerve
145.MC deformity seen in Hansen disease
a) Shrt fingers
b)Claw hand
c)Loss of temperature sensation
d) Depressed nasal bridge
146.MC cranial nerve involved in Hensen’s disease
a) Facial nerve
b) Trigeninal nerve
c) Trochlear
d) vagus
147. MC Hansen in India
a)BT
b)Bl
c)LL
d)pure neuritic
148.Mc nerve used for biopsy in Hensen’s disease
a)Ulnar nerve
b)Facial nerve
c)Radial cutaneous
d)post tibial nerve
149.Mc organ involved in Male in Hansen’s disease
a) Testis
b) Liver
c) Brain
d) Prostate
150. MC organ involved in female in Hansen’s disease
a) Testis
b) Liver
c) Brain
d) Prostate
151.Earliest sensation lost in Hensen’s disease
a) Pain
b) Temperature
c)Touch
d)Propiception
152.Whcih sensation is never lost in Hensen’s disease
a) Pain
b) Temperature
c)Touch
d)Propiception
153.Internal organ least involved in males in Hensen’s disease
a) CNS
b) LIver
c) Heart
d) intestine
154, Internal organ leats involved in females in females
a) CNS
b) LIver
c) Heart
d) uterus
155.On treatment LL Hansen converts to TT Hansen ,this is known as
a)upgrading
b)Reversal reaction
c)Type 1 reaction
d) ALL
156.Tuberculoid granuloma is seen in which type of Hansen
a)TT
b)LL
c) BT
d)BB
157.Foam cell or virchow cells are seen in which type of leprosy
a) LL
b)TT
c)BT
d)BL
158.A lepra or foam cell is actually a
a)Lymphocyte
b)dermal histiocyte
c)Melonocyte
d)Epthelial cell
159.Type 1 lepra reactin is which type of hypersensitivity
a) Tupe 1
b)Type 2
c)Type 3
d) Type 4
160.ype 2 lepra reactin is which type of hypersensitivity
a) Tupe 1
b)Type 2
c)Type 3
d) Type 4
161.Type 1 lepra reaction presents a s
a)Vasculitis
b)neuriitis and nerve abscess
c) Tuberculoid granuloma
d) Foam cells
162. Type 2 lepra reaction presents as
a)Vasculitis
b)neuriitis and nerve abscess
c) Tuberculoid granuloma
d) Foam cells
163.Typical presentation of TT Hensen
a)multiple hyperpigmented patych
b)single hypopigmented patch with well defined border
c)multiple nerve thickening
d) normal sweating
164.A child from Bihar comes with a white patch on cheek with normal sensation
and sweating.Most probable diagnosis is
a)indeterminate leprosy
b)TT
c)BL
d)BB
165.A child presents with white patch on cheek with fine scaling . Dx is
a) Pure neuritic type Hansen
b)Pityriasis alba
c)Tinea
d)Pityriasis versicolor
166.A patient presents with hypopigmented patch on skin with satellite lesion . Dx is
a)BB Hansen
b)BT
c)TT
d) inderminate
167.Type 1 lepra reaction NOT shown by
a)TT
b)LL
c)inderminate
d) BB
168.A patient present with hypopigmented patch and thickened nerve . The patch has two borders : inner on well defined and outer one ill defined which looks like inverted saucer appearance .Probabale Dx
a)BB
b)BT
c)BL
d) inderminate
169.On lepromatous side of Hensen disease spectrum the skin lesion becomes
a)Normal sensation
b)Noramal sweating
c)More hypopigmented
d)both a& b
170.Lateral madarodsis is seen in
a) LL leprosy
b)BB
c) BT
d)TT
171.Which part is involved in septal perforation in a case of leprosy
a)cartilagenous
b)ony
c)both
d)soft tissue
172.Glove and stocking anaesthesia is seen in
a)LL leprosy
b)TT
c)BB
d)BL
173.Onion peel nerve seen in which leprosy
a)LL
b)BB
c)TT
d)BL
174.Which type of LL leprosy shows dapsone resistance
a)Lucio
b)Histoid
c)Leonine
d)BB
175.Cytokines involved in ENL
a)TNF alfa
b)LTB4
c)TNF beta
d)ARKx
176.DOC for type1lepra reaction
a)Oral steroid
b)Chloroquine
c)azathioprine
d)Thalidomide
177.DOC for type2lepra reaction
a)Oral steroid
b)Chloroquine
c)azathioprine
d)Thalidomide
178.Most effective drug for type 2 lepra reaction
a)Oral steroid
b)Chloroquine
c)azathioprine
d)Thalidomide
179 After MDT of Hansen morphological index falls to
a)Zero
b) half
c)reduces +1 every year
d) variable
180.After MDT of Hansen BI falls to
a)Zero
b) half
c)reduces +1 every year
d) variable
181.SSS becomes positive only when bacteria count in leprosy becomes
a)>10^4
b)>10^5
c)>10^6
d)>10^9
182.Lepromin skin test negative in
a)LL
b)BT
c)BL
d)TT
183.Which is false about Lepromin test
a) prognostic
b)diagnostic
c)seen in TT
d)Low immunity dosen’t show this test positive
184.Fernandez reaction of Lepromin test is read at
a) 48h
b) 4 weeks
c) 21 days
d) none
185.Mitsuda reaction is read at
a) 48h
b) 4 weeks
c) 21 days
d) none
186.Which reading of Lepromin test is better indicator of cell immunity
a) Mitsuda
b)Fernandez
c)both
d)none
187. How many thickened nerve required required for diagnosis of MB leprosy
a)>1
b)>2
c)>5
d)only 1
188.How many patches of leprosy is required to declare it as MB
a)>1
b)>2
c)>5
d)only 1
189.In PB leprosy SSS is
a) Positive
b)Negative
c) Variable
d) none
190. S/E of clofazemine all except
a)Pigmentation
b)Icthyosis
c)Intestinal obstruction
d)prostate enlargement
191.Mechanics hand is seen in
a) Scleroderma
b)Dermatomyositis
c)Psoriasis
d)Morphea
192.Lack of supraorbital furrowing is seen in
a) Scleroderma
b)Dermatomyositis
c)Psoriasis
d)Morphea
193.Incubation period of syphillis
a)10 days
b)9-90 days
c)15-30 days
d) 14 days
194.Mitten hand deformity is seen in
a) Epidermolysis bullosa
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid
c)Hansen disease
d)Psoriasis
195.Delipidated brick wall appearance is seen on HPE in a case of
a) Hailey haile
b) Darier’s disease
c)Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
d)Linear Lga disease
196.Cluster of Jewels appearance is seen in
a) Linear IgA Disease
b)EBS
c)Psoriasis
d)Dermatitis herpetiformis
197.String of pearls appearance is seen in
a) Linear IgA Disease
b)EBS
c)Psoriasis
d)Dermatitis herpetiformis
198.Incubation period of first episode of scabies
a)3-4 weeks
b)1 day
c)14days
d) variable depending on type of exposure and immunity
199.Incubation period of secomd episode of scabies
a)3-4 weeks
b)1 day
c)14days
d) variable
200.Circle of hebra lesion seen in
a)Tinea
b)Pityriasis alba
c)Scabies
d)Circinate balanitis
201.Primary chancre is
a) Hard and painless
b)Hard and painful
c) Soft and painless
d) Soft and painful
202.IOC for primary chancre
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) FTA absorption
203. Most specific and sensitive test in primary syphillis
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) FTA absorption
204.Earliest blood test to be positive in primary syphillis
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) FTA absorption
205.Screening test of choice in primary syphillis
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) FTA absorption
206.Which test is negative in primary syphillis
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) FTA absorption
207.Gold standard test for primary syphillis
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) Rabit innoculation test
208.MC site for extra genital chancre
a) Lips
b) Anus
c) Tounge
d) Fingers
209. In India which of the following is the screening test for primary syphillis
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) FTA absorption
210.Which of the following test can’t be done from oral lesion
a) VDRL
b) Dark ground illumination
c) Enzyme immunoassay
d) FTA absorption
211. FTA absorption for primary syphillis is positive at which week
a)5 weeks
b)2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks
212. Which of the following test for primary syphillis is positive in both active and past syphillis
a) Enz immunoassay
b)TPHA/TPPA
c)VDRL
d) BOTh a and b
213. Flat moist palque is seen in
a) primary syphillis
b) Secondary syphiilis
c) Tertiary syphillis
d) Latent syphillis
214.Involvement of palm and sole is characteristic of which syphillis
a) primary syphillis
b) Secondary syphiilis
c) Tertiary syphillis
d) Latent syphillis
215.A patient with history of unprotected sex with a sex worker complians of copper coloured rashes , papules and plaque but no vesicles . Palms and sole involved . On mucosa flat moist lesion are seen . Diagnosis is
a) primary syphillis
b) Secondary syphiilis
c) Tertiary syphillis
d) Latent syphillis
216.Buschke Ollendrof sign is seen in
a) primary syphillis
b) Secondary syphiilis
c) Tertiary syphillis
d) Latent syphillis
217. Deep dermal tenderness in secondary syphillis is known as
a) Buschke Ollendrof sign
b) Robert’s gamms sign
c) Hellen peterson sign
d) All
218. Buschke Ollendrof sign is due to
a) Involvement of muscular layer
b) End arteritits obliterens
c) Thickened nerve
d) ALL
219.Spit papule is characteristic of which stage of syphillis
a) primary syphillis
b) Secondary syphiilis
c) Tertiary syphillis
d) Latent syphillis
220.Most infectious lesion of secondary syphillis
a) Mucus patches
b) Rashes
c) spli papule
d) Semen
221. IOCF for secondary suyphillis
a)FTA absorption
b)VDRL
c) TPHA
dTPPA
222.Max spirocetes in CNS can be cultured in which stage of syphillis
a) primary syphillis
b) Secondary syphiilis
c) Tertiary syphillis
d) Latent syphillis
223.In which stage of syphillis it is difficult to culture spirocetes due to fragmented organism
a) primary syphillis
b) Secondary syphiilis
c) Tertiary syphillis
d) Latent syphillis
224.IOC for neurosyphillis
a) VDRL
b) TPPA
c) TPHA
d) CSF VDRL
225.Late latent and tertiary syphillis is
a) Transmisible
b) non transmissible
c) can be both
d) depends on severity
226.TOC for neurosyphillis
a)Inj Benzathine penicillin
b) IV aquous penicillin
c) Doxycycline
d) inj Ceftriaxone
227. Treat of syphillis in penicillin allergy
a)Inj Benzathine penicillin
b) IV aquous penicillin
c) Doxycycline
d) inj Ceftriaxone
228. Treatment of choice of syphillis in pregnancy
a) Penicillin
b) Doxycyline
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Moxifloxacin
229. What is the treatment of choice of syphillis in pregnancy with penicillin allergy
a) Doxycycline
b) Treat wsyphillis after pregnancy is over
c) Syphillis antibody
d) Desensitization
230.Which test is used to monitor the treatment of syphillis
a)TPPA
b) VDRL
c) FTA ABs
d) Enz immunoassy
231.Most specific test for syphillis
a) TPPA /TPHA
b) VDRL
c) FTA ABS
d) Dark ground microscope
232. Most sensitive test for syphillis
a) TPPA /TPHA
b) VDRL
c) FTA ABS
d) Dark ground microscope
233. Early congenital syphillis is call when it is diagnosed before
a) 2y
b) 3y
c)5y
d)2 months
234.Late congenital syphillis is called when it is diagnosed after
a) 2y
b) 3y
c)5y
d)2 months
235. eary congenital syphillis is like
a) adult tertiary syphillis
b) adult secondary syphillis
c) late latent syphillis
d) none
236.Most characteristic feature of early congenital syphillis
a) snuffles
b) Condyloma lata
c) Blister
d) desquamation of palms and soles
237. Earliset and Mc feature of early congenital syphillis
a) snuffles
b) Condyloma lata
c) Blister
d) desquamation of palms and soles
238.Triad of early congenital syphillis excludes
a) Snuffles
b) syphilitic pemphigus
c)hepatoslenomegaly
d) palat5al perforation
239. Clutton’s joint is seen in
a) Late congenital syphillis
b)chancroid
c) donovanosis
d) Early syphillis
240. Hutchingson’s triad of late congenital syphillis excludes
a) Interstitial keratitis
b)8th nerve invlovement
c)Nasal septal perforation
d) Hutchingson’s teeth
241. FTA ABS igM of baby for Dx of congenital syphillis is non specific as it cross reacts with
a)CMV
b)Rubella
c)Toxoplasma
d) ALL
242.What is Higomonaki’s sign in late congenital syphillis
a) U/L enlargement of stenoclavicular joint
b)Lower molar is dome shaped
c)Thick supraorbital ridge
d) anterior tibial bowing
243.Olympian brow , sabre tibia and clutton’s joint is seen in
a) Psoriasis
b) Late latent syphillis
c) Late congenital syphillis
d) Chancroid
244.IP of chancroid
a) 2-5 days
b)9-90 days
c)14 days
d) 10days
245.Kissing ulcer on labia is seen in
a) syphillis
b) Chancroid
c)Donovanosis
d) secondary syphillis
246.Soft and painful ulcer is seen in
a) secondary syphillis
b) donovanosis
c) chancroid
d) tertiary syphillis
247.Traetment for chancroid
a) doxycycline
b)Azithro
c)azithro and Inj Ceftriaxone
d) Penicillin
248.A patient present with vegetating granulation tissue on penile ulcer which is beefy red and bleeds on touch > On microscopy closed safety pin appearance seen . Diagnosis is
a) Chancroid
b) latent syphillis
c) LGV
d)Donovanosis
249. Treatment of donovanosis
a) Azithro 1g/week or Doxycycline 100mg BD
b) Inj Penicillin once weekly
c) Inj ceftriaxone 250 mg stat
d) None
250. primary ulcer is never seen or transient in case of
a) Chancroid
b) latent syphillis
c) LGV
d)Donovanosis
251.Groove sign is seen in
a) Chancroid
b) latent syphillis
c) LGV
d)Donovanosis
252.Saxophone or Rams horn penis is seen in
a) Chancroid
b) latent syphillis
c) LGV
d)Donovanosis
253.Treatment of choice for LGV
a) Doxycycline 100 mg Bd
b) Inj Ceftriaxone 250 mg stat
c) Tab azithro 1g stat
d) Inj penicillin once weekly
254.Lyphoedema of genital is seen in which stage of LGV
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) ALL
255.MC genital lesion in HIV is
a) Syphillis
b) Donovanosis
c)Herpes genitalis
d) Chancroid
256.Gonoccocal urethritis I.P is
a)2-5 days
b)10-14 days
c) 3 weeks
d) depends on route of infection
257.Non gonoccocal urethritis I.P is
a)2-5 days
b)10-14 days
c) 3 weeks
d) depends on route of infection
258.Testis never involved in which tye of urethritis
a)Gonoccocal
b) Non gonoccocal
c) Chlamydial
d)Trichomonas
259.A patent presents with thick purulent urethral discharge after having umprotected sex before 5 days .Most probable diagnosis is
a)Gonoccocal
b) Non gonoccocal
c) Chlamydial
d)Trichomonas
260.In urethral discharge , treatment by syndromic approach
a) Green packet
b)Grey packet
c)Yellow packet
d)Black packet
261.Grey packet contains
a)Cefixime and Azithro
b)Secnidazole and Fluconazole
c)Azithro and doxycycline
d)benzathine penicilline and Azithro
262.In vaginal discharge , treatment by syndromic approach
a) Green packet
b)Grey packet
c)Yellow packet
d)Black packet
263.Green packet contains
a)Cefixime and Azithro
b)Secnidazole and Fluconazole
c)Azithro and doxycycline
d)benzathine penicilline and Azithro
264.In cervical discharge treatment by syndromic approach
a) Green packet
b)Grey packet
c)Yellow packet
d)Black packet
265.Green frothy profuse discharge and strawberry cervix is seen in
a) Candidiasis
b) Trichomonisis
c) Bacterial vaginosis
d) None
266. In Trichomoniasis , treatment by syndromic approach
a) Green packet
b)Grey packet
c)Yellow packet
d)Black packet
267.Amsel criteria and Nugent score are used for the diagnosis of
a) bacterial vaginosis
b)syphillis
c)Gonoccocal urethral discharge
d0Chancroid
268 .Which of the following is wrong about amsel criteria
a) Thin homgenous white adherent discharge
b)Vaginal fluid pH >4.5
c)fishy amine odour
d) Clue cells < 20%
269. In Bact vaginosis treatment by syndromic approach
a) Green packet
b)Grey packet
c)Yellow packet
d)Black packet
270.Black packet contains
a)Cefixime and Azithro
b)Secnidazole and Fluconazole
c)Azithro and doxycycline
d)benzathine penicilline and Azithro
271. White kit contains
a)Cefixime and Azithro
b)Secnidazole and Fluconazole
c)Azithro and doxycycline
d)benzathine penicilline and Azithro
272. For Inguinal bubo , treatment by syndromic approach
a) Green packet
b)Grey packet
c)Yellow packet
d)Black packet
273. For herpes , treatmwnt by syndromic approach
a) Green packet
b)Grey packet
c)Yellow packet
d)Black packet
274.White kit is used in
a) Syphillis
b)Chancroid
c) Herpes
d) Both a & b
275.In a patient with chancroid if allergic with White kit which kit is given
a) Green ki
b)Red kit
c)Blue kit
d) Black kit
276.No partner treatment is
a) gardenella
b)Candida
c)HSV
d)Herpes
277.MC STD in the world
a) Gonorrhea
b)Chlamydiasis
c)HSV2
d) Candidiasis
278. Mc STD in India
a) Gonorrhea
b)Chlamydiasis
c)HSV2
d) Candidiasis
279 MC bacterial STD in the world
a) Gonorrhea
b)Chlamydiasis
c)HSV2
d) Trichomoniasis
280. All of the following are genetic association of psoriasis except
a) HLA Cw6
b)HRT4
c)B13
d)B17
1.Which of the following is exacerbating factors of psoriasis
a)Sudden withdrawal of systemic steroid
b)Pseudomonas infection
c) High protein diet
d) ALL
2.Which of the following drug is contraindicated in psoriasis
a) ACE inhibitor
b) Beta blockers
c) Penicillin
d) Both a and b
3 Psoriasis is typically seen in
a) Extensor surface
b) Flexor
c) both
d) trunk
4 Guttate psoriasis is caused by
a) Sreptococcus in throat
b) Staph in nose
c) pseudomonas
d) All
5. First line treatment of erythrodermic psoriasis
a) Methotrexate
b)Acitretin
c) Rituximab
d) Dexamethasone
6. Second line treatment of erythrodermic psoriasis
a) Methotrexate
b)Acitretin
c) Rituximab
d) Dexamethasone
7. What is characteristic of inverse psoriasis
a) No scalling
b) Extensive scalling
c) Absence of erythroderma
d) ALL
8.Pustular psoriasis when becomes generalised
a) Von Zumbusch
b) Impetigo herpetiformis
c) dermatitis herpetiformis
d) Inverse psoriasis
9.Pustular psoriasis in pregnancy is known as
a) Von Zumbusch
b) Impetigo herpetiformis
c) dermatitis herpetiformis
d) Inverse psoriasis
10 first line treatment of Von Zumbusch
a) Methotrexate
b)Acitretin
c) Rituximab
d) Dexamethasone
11 DOC for Impetigo Herpetiformis
a)Methotrexate
b) acitretin
c) Systemic steroid
d) Cyclosporin
12 If systemic steroids are C/I what is given in Impetigo Herpetiformis
a)Methotrexate
b) acitretin
c) Systemic steroid
d) Cyclosporin
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